There is another discrepancy which, among other things, has to do with the possible takeover of the strait of Gibraltar from Hitler. It's about the armistice between Germany and France after the defeat of French armies in 1940.
The treaty is quite bizarre. Hitler let a free zone for French people in the south of France (representing nearly half of the French territory) and he let them their colonies. The French armies were completely defeated. So, he could have invaded the entire territory of France and said "now, all your possessions belong to me". French government couldn't have said anything to that. But no, he decides to let a free zone. And he decides also to let them their colony. A very strange clemency.
But, when you know Hitler was a zionist jew and you observe the north African map, you understand why Hitler the jew did that.
France possessed colonies at this time in North Africa. They possessed Tunisia, Algeria, AND Morocco. And Morocco is at the south side of the strait of Gibraltar.
So, if Hitler had decided not to be clement, and to take every French possessions and territories (by an imposed treaty), he would have also taken Morocco. And then, he would have controlled the strait of Gibraltar. Spain controlled a thin band of the north of the Morocco territory, but the French territory was largely near enough of the strait of Gibraltar to let Hitler be able to control it without invading the Spanish protectorate. But Hitler could have also invaded the Spanish protectorate. Spain couldn't have stopped the German armies.
And what would have happened if Hitler had controlled the strait? Germany would have controlled the entire Mediterranean Sea, and all the north of Africa. Then, they wouldn't have had to keep large forces in the south of Europe and in North Africa. They could have invade Iraq an take his oil. England would have been very far from his Indian colonies.
And at this time (September 1940), England was unable to prevent this from happening. So, there was nobody to stop Hitler from invading French (and eventually Spanish) Morocco.
Thus, as Hitler was a jew, he had to show such a strange clemency toward France, and to let them keep the south of France and all their colonies. Without this clemency, Germany would have been stronger and England weaker. And it would have been longer to finish the faked wwII. Or the events would have been less coherent and thus less believable.
It also explains why the German armies didn't rush toward Morocco (and didn't install a simple defensive line against English armies. English armies which would have been defenseless once the strait of Gibraltar controlled, because of a lack of supplies) instead of trying to obliterate English armies when they decided to fight in North Africa (February 1941).
So by not invading Morocco in 1940 or in February 1941, Hitler let England the time to rebuild its forces and to be able (with the USA), to invade Morocco (in November 1942). And all this was planned from the beginning.
And this discrepancy is even more important than the one about Hitler not forcing Spain to give him the control of the strait of Gibraltar, or the one about not invading Spain. It shows even more clearly that Hitler was in fact a traitor who acted intentionally to avoid taking control of the strait. The case of Spain was already extremely shady. But the fact that he also avoided taking control of French North Africa during two years and a half leaves no doubt about his real nature.